A 60-year-old man from rural Laos presents with recurrent bacterial meningitis. He has had three episodes over 2 years, each caused by Gram-negative e...

Question

A 60-year-old man from rural Laos presents with recurrent bacterial meningitis. He has had three episodes over 2 years, each caused by Gram-negative enteric organisms. He has been on long-term corticosteroids for COPD. Stool examination reveals filariform larvae. What is the most likely explanation for his recurrent meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Strongyloides stercoralis hyperinfection with translocation of gut bacteria across the intestinal wall

Answer

Immunoglobulin deficiency

Answer

CSF rhinorrhoea from skull base fracture

Answer

HIV-associated immunosuppression

Answer

Complement deficiency

uk-dtmh MCQ (SBA): Strongyloides and Gram-negative Meningitis