A 41-year-old woman presents with P. falciparum malaria with a parasitaemia of 0.8%. She has no features of severe disease. She is started on artemeth...

Question

A 41-year-old woman presents with P. falciparum malaria with a parasitaemia of 0.8%. She has no features of severe disease. She is started on artemether/lumefantrine. On day 3, her parasitaemia has risen to 2.5% despite observed therapy. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Escalate to intravenous artesunate as this represents treatment failure

Answer

Continue artemether/lumefantrine and repeat film in 24 hours

Answer

Switch to oral atovaquone/proguanil

Answer

Add primaquine as a gametocytocidal agent

Answer

Discharge with a repeat blood film in 7 days

uk-dtmh MCQ (SBA): Malaria Treatment Failure

A 41-year-old woman presents with P. falciparum malaria with a parasitaemia of 0.8%. She has no features of severe disease. She is started on artemether/lumefantrine. On day 3, her parasitaemia has risen to 2.5% despite observed therapy. What is the most appropriate next step?