A 45-year-old woman is referred back to the GP after colposcopy following an abnormal cervical screening result (HPV positive, low-grade dyskaryosis)....

Question

A 45-year-old woman is referred back to the GP after colposcopy following an abnormal cervical screening result (HPV positive, low-grade dyskaryosis). At colposcopy, CIN 1 was confirmed on biopsy. The colposcopist has recommended conservative management. She asks why she is not being treated. Which is the most appropriate explanation?

Accepted Answer

CIN 1 (low-grade changes) has a high rate of spontaneous regression (approximately 60% regress within 2 years) - conservative management with follow-up is appropriate, with treatment reserved for persistent disease

Answer

CIN 1 is pre-cancerous and must always be treated immediately

Answer

Treatment is only available for CIN 3

Answer

CIN 1 always progresses to cancer

Answer

No follow-up is needed for CIN 1

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): CIN 1 - Conservative Management Rationale