A 26-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge and vulval irritation following a course of antibiotics. On examinati...

Question

A 26-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge and vulval irritation following a course of antibiotics. On examination, there is vulval erythema with a thick white discharge. She had an episode of BV treated with metronidazole 2 weeks ago. Her current vaginal pH is 4.0. Which is the single most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Vulvovaginal candidiasis - likely precipitated by recent antibiotic use

Answer

Recurrent bacterial vaginosis

Answer

Trichomoniasis

Answer

Gonorrhoea

Answer

Retained foreign body

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Post-Antibiotic Candidiasis - Clinical Diagnosis