A 50-year-old woman presents to the GP with a new-onset left-sided groin lump. On examination, there is a 2 cm firm, non-tender, mobile lymph node in ...

Question

A 50-year-old woman presents to the GP with a new-onset left-sided groin lump. On examination, there is a 2 cm firm, non-tender, mobile lymph node in the left inguinal region. She has no vulval symptoms and no visible vulval lesion. She has a history of lichen sclerosus. Which is the single most appropriate action?

Accepted Answer

Thorough vulval and perineal examination including inspection of the entire vulval skin surface, and consider 2-week wait referral if no obvious cause is identified

Answer

Reassure - inguinal lymphadenopathy is always benign

Answer

Prescribe oral antibiotics for reactive lymphadenopathy

Answer

Arrange a pelvic ultrasound

Answer

Repeat examination in 3 months

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Inguinal Lymphadenopathy with Lichen Sclerosus History