A 37-year-old woman presents to the GP with secondary amenorrhoea for 4 months. A pregnancy test is negative. Her BMI is 24 kg/m². Blood results show:...

Question

A 37-year-old woman presents to the GP with secondary amenorrhoea for 4 months. A pregnancy test is negative. Her BMI is 24 kg/m². Blood results show: FSH 6 IU/L, LH 4 IU/L, oestradiol normal, prolactin 2,500 mIU/L (elevated - normal

Accepted Answer

Hyperprolactinaemia

Answer

Polycystic ovary syndrome

Answer

Premature ovarian insufficiency

Answer

Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

Answer

Asherman syndrome

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Hyperprolactinaemia Diagnosis

A 37-year-old woman presents to the GP with secondary amenorrhoea for 4 months. A pregnancy test is negative. Her BMI is 24 kg/m². Blood results show: FSH 6 IU/L, LH 4 IU/L, oestradiol normal, prolactin 2,500 mIU/L (elevated - normal <500), and TFTs normal. Which is the most likely diagnosis?