A 38-year-old woman presents to the GP with 6 months of amenorrhoea, hot flushes, and vaginal dryness. Two FSH levels taken 6 weeks apart are 62 IU/L ...

Question

A 38-year-old woman presents to the GP with 6 months of amenorrhoea, hot flushes, and vaginal dryness. Two FSH levels taken 6 weeks apart are 62 IU/L and 58 IU/L. She is diagnosed with premature ovarian insufficiency (POI). She does not wish to conceive. What is the single most important reason for recommending HRT (or the combined oral contraceptive pill) until at least age 51?

Accepted Answer

To reduce the long-term increased risks of cardiovascular disease and osteoporosis associated with early oestrogen deficiency

Answer

To manage hot flushes

Answer

To provide contraception

Answer

To preserve her remaining ovarian reserve

Answer

To treat the underlying cause of POI

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): POI - Rationale for HRT