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ModerateGynaecological ConditionsNew IMB with LNG-IUSuk-drcog
A 38-year-old woman presents to the GP with intermenstrual bleeding. She has a levonorgestrel intrauterine system in situ (inserted 4 years ago for contraception). She has no pain. Speculum examination shows a normal cervix with IUD threads visible. Her cervical screening is up to date and was HPV negative. Which is the single most appropriate action?