A 26-year-old woman taking the combined oral contraceptive pill presents to the GP with a first episode of deep vein thrombosis, confirmed by Doppler ...

Question

A 26-year-old woman taking the combined oral contraceptive pill presents to the GP with a first episode of deep vein thrombosis, confirmed by Doppler ultrasound yesterday. She is now on treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin. Which is the single most appropriate action regarding her contraception?

Accepted Answer

Stop the COC immediately and switch to a progestogen-only method once the acute event is managed

Answer

Continue the COC until the VTE is treated and then stop

Answer

Stop the COC and advise no hormonal contraception ever again

Answer

Continue the COC as the LMWH will prevent further clots

Answer

Stop the COC and offer the copper IUD as the only contraceptive option

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Acute VTE and COC Cessation