A 47-year-old woman presents to the GP with vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and night sweats) and irregular periods occurring every 2-5 months. She ha...

Question

A 47-year-old woman presents to the GP with vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and night sweats) and irregular periods occurring every 2-5 months. She has a uterus and no contraindications to HRT. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She requests HRT. Which is the single most appropriate regimen?

Accepted Answer

Sequential (cyclical) HRT

Answer

Continuous combined HRT

Answer

Oestrogen-only HRT

Answer

Tibolone

Answer

Progesterone-only therapy (micronised progesterone)

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Perimenopausal HRT