A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, attends the GP at 16 weeks of gestation. She had pre-eclampsia in her first pregnancy requiring delivery at 34 ...

Question

A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, attends the GP at 16 weeks of gestation. She had pre-eclampsia in her first pregnancy requiring delivery at 34 weeks. Her blood pressure today is 126/78 mmHg and urinalysis shows no proteinuria. Which is the single most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Commence aspirin 150 mg daily from now

Answer

Commence aspirin 75 mg daily from now

Answer

Aspirin is no longer indicated as ideally it should have been started at 12 weeks

Answer

Commence labetalol 100 mg twice daily

Answer

Refer to maternal medicine for uterine artery Doppler at 20 weeks

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Pre-eclampsia Prevention

A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, attends the GP at 16 weeks of gestation. She had pre-eclampsia in her first pregnancy requiring delivery at 34 weeks. Her blood pressure today is 126/78 mmHg and urinalysis shows no proteinuria. Which is the single most appropriate management?