A 40-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful left knee, unable to weight-bear. He has fever of 38.9°C. Examination shows a hot, tender knee with marked effusion and reduced range of movement. What is the most appropriate next step?AStart oral NSAIDs and review in 48 hoursBArrange urgent joint aspiration and start IV antibioticsCOrder MRI of the knee and await the resultDRefer to physiotherapyEGive intra-articular steroid injection in clinicCheck my answer