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HardCardiovascularPrimary hypertensionuk-plab-1

A 52-year-old man is found to have clinic blood pressures around 160/96 mmHg on three separate occasions. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms an average daytime BP of 152/94 mmHg. He has no target organ damage and a 10-year CVD risk of 12%. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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