Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

EasyGastroenterologyUncomplicated dyspepsiauk-plab-1

A 54-year-old man presents with epigastric pain that is worse after meals and relieved by antacids. He has no weight loss, dysphagia, vomiting or GI bleeding. He takes Ibuprofen most days for osteoarthritis. He is a non-smoker and drinks 8 units of alcohol per week. What is the most appropriate initial management in primary care according to NICE dyspepsia guidance?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.