A 60-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is unable to bear weight. Serum urate is raised. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment of this acute attack?AStart Allopurinol immediately and no analgesiaBStart oral NSAID such as Naproxen (if no contraindications) or ColchicineCStart long-term FebuxostatDGive intra-articular steroid without ruling out infectionENo pharmacological treatment is requiredCheck my answer