uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Postmenopausal osteoporosis

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateRheumatologyPostmenopausal osteoporosisuk-plab-1

A 66-year-old woman is admitted after a fall and found to have a hip fracture. She has a previous vertebral fracture and a T-score on DEXA scan of –2.8. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment to reduce future fracture risk, assuming no contraindications?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.