Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

ModerateCardiovascularPrimary hypertensionuk-plab-1

A 52-year-old White British man is reviewed in GP clinic after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring showed an average of 152/96 mmHg. He has no diabetes, renal disease or cardiovascular disease. Lifestyle advice has been given over the last 3 months with minimal effect. According to NICE guidance, which is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?

Practice more on iatroX

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.