A 45-year-old white British man is found to have a clinic blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg on repeated measurements. Ambulatory monitoring confirms an av...

Question

A 45-year-old white British man is found to have a clinic blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg on repeated measurements. Ambulatory monitoring confirms an average daytime blood pressure of 154/94 mmHg. He has no diabetes, no target organ damage and a 10-year QRISK score of 12%. What is the most appropriate first-line antihypertensive drug?

Accepted Answer

An ACE inhibitor such as Ramipril

Answer

A calcium-channel blocker such as Amlodipine

Answer

A thiazide-like diuretic such as Indapamide

Answer

An alpha-blocker such as Doxazosin

Answer

A beta-blocker such as Bisoprolol

uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Primary hypertension