Question

A 62-year-old man with diabetes presents with a red, hot, swollen left lower leg with poorly demarcated margins. He is afebrile and systemically well. There is no abscess. What is the most appropriate management in primary care?

Accepted Answer

Oral Flucloxacillin for 7 days

Answer

Topical antibiotics only

Answer

Oral Clarithromycin and high-dose steroids

Answer

Immediate hospital admission for intravenous Gentamicin

Answer

No antibiotics; elevation alone

Practice question

A 62-year-old man with diabetes presents with a red, hot, swollen left lower leg with poorly demarcated margins. He is afebrile and systemically well. There is no abscess. What is the most appropriate management in primary care?