A 56-year-old man presents with acute onset severe pain, redness and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is afebrile. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?AHigh-dose NSAID such as Naproxen if no contraindicationsBStart Allopurinol immediatelyCLong-term low-dose Colchicine onlyDStart oral Prednisolone and stop all NSAIDs even if toleratedEBegin opioids as first-line analgesiaCheck my answer