Question

A 19-year-old man with type 1 diabetes presents with abdominal pain, vomiting and polyuria. He looks dehydrated and his capillary glucose is 28 mmol/L. Venous blood gas shows pH 7.15 and ketones are markedly raised. According to UK hospital protocols, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

Accepted Answer

Give intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride bolus and then fixed-rate insulin

Answer

Start a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion and delay fluids

Answer

Give an intravenous bolus of rapid-acting insulin only

Answer

Start long-acting insulin subcutaneously and monitor

Answer

Restrict oral fluids but avoid intravenous fluids

Practice question