A 42-year-old woman presents with fever, malaise and a painful swollen calf. Duplex ultrasound confirms a proximal deep vein thrombosis. She has no contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?AAspirin 75 mg dailyBTherapeutic low-molecular-weight Heparin followed by a direct oral anticoagulant or continued LMWHCProphylactic-dose low-molecular-weight Heparin onlyDCompression stockings aloneENo treatment if symptoms improve spontaneouslyCheck my answer