A 40-year-old man attends for review of long-standing rheumatoid arthritis. He has symmetrical small joint swelling, prolonged morning stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. What is the most appropriate initial disease-modifying treatment?AParacetamol aloneBLong-term oral Prednisolone without other therapyCStart a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug such as MethotrexateDStart opioid analgesics onlyEIntra-articular steroid injections onlyCheck my answer