A 45-year-old man with low mood, anhedonia and poor sleep for 2 months is seen in GP. He meets criteria for moderate depression but has no active suicidal ideation, psychosis or bipolar history. What is the most appropriate first-line management?AOffer an SSRI such as Sertraline plus psychological therapyBStart high-dose antipsychotic medicationCArrange urgent psychiatric admissionDPrescribe benzodiazepines as monotherapyEAdvise no treatment is required for moderate depressionCheck my answer