A 50-year-old man attends his GP with a blood pressure of 230/120 mmHg. Fundoscopy shows bilateral papilloedema but he has no chest pain or focal neurology. What is the most appropriate management?AStart amlodipine in primary care and review in 1 monthBStart bendroflumethiazide and review in 1 weekCArrange same-day emergency admission for intravenous blood pressure controlDNo treatment is required unless symptoms developEStart low-dose ramipril and arrange routine outpatient reviewCheck my answer