A 55-year-old man with no significant comorbidities is found to have persistent clinic blood pressures around 162/96 mmHg confirmed by ambulatory monitoring (stage 2 hypertension). What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?ALifestyle advice only with annual reviewBStart Amlodipine as first-lineCStart an ACE inhibitor such as RamiprilDStart a thiazide-like diuretic aloneEStart immediate combination of ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker and thiazideCheck my answer