Question

A 62-year-old man presents with erythematous, warm, tender swelling of his left lower leg extending from ankle to mid-calf, with a low-grade fever. There is no abscess or necrosis. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Oral Flucloxacillin as an outpatient

Answer

Intravenous Vancomycin in hospital

Answer

Topical antibiotic cream only

Answer

No antibiotics; treat with NSAIDs only

Answer

Urgent surgical debridement

Practice question

A 62-year-old man presents with erythematous, warm, tender swelling of his left lower leg extending from ankle to mid-calf, with a low-grade fever. There is no abscess or necrosis. What is the most appropriate initial management?