A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central crushing chest pain for 90 minutes radiating to his left arm. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is the single most appropriate next step in management?AArrange immediate primary percutaneous coronary interventionBStart a statin and arrange an outpatient cardiology reviewCGive thrombolysis and refer for routine angiographyDGive sublingual glyceryl trinitrate and discharge if the pain settlesEArrange an exercise treadmill test the following dayCheck my answer