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EasyCardiologyChronic heart failure managementca-mccqe1ca-ccfpca-rcpsc-im

A 68-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnoea and bilateral pitting oedema. Echocardiogram shows LVEF 28%. He has no hypotension and is on ARNI, beta blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor at good doses. According to CCS heart failure guidelines, which non-pharmacologic intervention is most strongly recommended to reduce morbidity and mortality?

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