A 39-year-old man with severe opioid use disorder injects fentanyl daily and presents requesting help. He has no hepatic failure or severe respiratory...

Question

A 39-year-old man with severe opioid use disorder injects fentanyl daily and presents requesting help. He has no hepatic failure or severe respiratory disease. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment option offered in primary care?

Accepted Answer

Buprenorphine-naloxone maintenance therapy

Answer

Clonidine monotherapy for withdrawal symptoms

Answer

Abrupt abstinence without pharmacologic support

Answer

Short-acting oxycodone taper

Answer

Involuntary admission without offering substitution therapy

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Opioid use disorder

A 39-year-old man with severe opioid use disorder injects fentanyl daily and presents requesting help. He has no hepatic failure or severe respiratory disease. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment option offered in primary care?