A 64-year-old man presents with a first unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis of the left femoral vein. He has normal renal function and no active ...

Question

A 64-year-old man presents with a first unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis of the left femoral vein. He has normal renal function and no active cancer or contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Full-dose oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant for at least 3 months

Answer

No anticoagulation, use compression stockings only

Answer

Three months of low-dose acetylsalicylic acid

Answer

Inferior vena cava filter placement without anticoagulation

Answer

Indefinite low-molecular-weight heparin therapy regardless of risk

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Deep vein thrombosis

A 64-year-old man presents with a first unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis of the left femoral vein. He has normal renal function and no active cancer or contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate initial management?