A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with 2 months of pervasive low mood, anhedonia, insomnia and impaired functioning. There is no psychosis or high ...

Question

A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with 2 months of pervasive low mood, anhedonia, insomnia and impaired functioning. There is no psychosis or high suicide risk. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Evidence-based psychotherapy and/or SSRI antidepressant with follow-up

Answer

Benzodiazepine monotherapy

Answer

No treatment as symptoms may resolve

Answer

Immediate electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

High-dose tricyclic antidepressant as first-line

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Major depressive disorder

A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with 2 months of pervasive low mood, anhedonia, insomnia and impaired functioning. There is no psychosis or high suicide risk. What is the most appropriate initial management?