A 32-year-old woman presents with unilateral optic neuritis and MRI showing multiple periventricular lesions suggestive of demyelination. She has no major disability. According to Canadian MS guidance, what is the next best step?AReassure; no further follow-upBStart disease-modifying therapy after confirming diagnosis of multiple sclerosisCPrescribe chronic high-dose oral prednisone onlyDStart anticoagulation for stroke preventionERefer only if symptoms recurCheck my answer