A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired functioning at work. He has no psychotic s...

Question

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired functioning at work. He has no psychotic symptoms or bipolar history. Which management approach is most appropriate for moderate major depressive disorder in primary care?

Accepted Answer

Combination of psychological therapy and an SSRI antidepressant

Answer

No treatment; depression will usually resolve without intervention

Answer

Immediate referral for electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

Long-term benzodiazepines alone

Answer

High-dose antipsychotic monotherapy

au-racgp MCQ (SBA): Major depressive disorder

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and impaired functioning at work. He has no psychotic symptoms or bipolar history. Which management approach is most appropriate for moderate major depressive disorder in primary care?