A 62-year-old man with gout presents with a hot, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has had similar attacks before, but no tophi or CKD. What is the most appropriate acute management?AStart allopurinol immediately at high doseBStart colchicine or NSAIDs for acute pain and inflammationCBegin long-term low-dose prednisoneDPerform joint replacement surgeryEAdvise dietary measures onlyCheck my answer