A 64-year-old man presents with pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea. His Wells score for pulmonary embolism is low, and he has no signs of DVT. According to accepted diagnostic algorithms, what is the most appropriate next step?AOrder CT pulmonary angiography immediatelyBRequest a high-sensitivity D-dimer test and proceed to imaging only if positiveCStart full-dose anticoagulation without further testingDPerform V/Q scan in all low-risk patientsENo further tests; PE is excluded by low Wells score aloneCheck my answer