A 70-year-old man with longstanding hypertension and diabetes presents with gradual worsening of bilateral lower limb swelling and breathlessness. Ech...

Question

A 70-year-old man with longstanding hypertension and diabetes presents with gradual worsening of bilateral lower limb swelling and breathlessness. Echocardiogram shows left ventricular ejection fraction 25%. He is already on optimal doses of ACE inhibitor, beta blocker and mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist. According to heart failure management principles, which additional class of drug has strong evidence for improving outcomes?

Accepted Answer

SGLT2 inhibitor

Answer

DPP-4 inhibitor

Answer

Thiazide diuretic

Answer

Nitrate-only therapy

Answer

Loop diuretic alone

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Heart failure optimised therapy