Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

MediumGastroenterologyAcute pancreatitisau-amcau-racp

A 54-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol use presents with epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Serum amylase and lipase are markedly elevated. He is haemodynamically stable but requires opioid analgesia. According to standard management of acute pancreatitis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step in the first 24 hours?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.