A 31-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of mood swings, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and impulsive spending...

Question

A 31-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of mood swings, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and impulsive spending. She has had previous episodes of depression but no prior diagnosis. There is no substance use. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management?

Accepted Answer

Start a mood stabiliser such as lithium

Answer

Start an SSRI antidepressant as monotherapy

Answer

Start benzodiazepines alone

Answer

No pharmacologic treatment is required

Answer

Start high-dose corticosteroids

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Acute mania management