A 30-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhoea and lower abdominal pain. Serum β-hCG is 2 000 IU/L and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intr...

Question

A 30-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhoea and lower abdominal pain. Serum β-hCG is 2 000 IU/L and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac but a 2 cm adnexal mass with minimal free fluid. She is haemodynamically stable and has no contraindications to medical therapy. Which management is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Single-dose methotrexate with follow-up β-hCG levels

Answer

Expectant management without follow-up

Answer

Immediate laparotomy and salpingectomy

Answer

Dilation and curettage alone

Answer

Reassure and repeat pregnancy test in 4 weeks

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Ectopic pregnancy