Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

MediumNeurologyTransient ischaemic attackau-amcau-racp

A 72-year-old man presents with a 30-minute episode of left arm weakness and dysphasia that has completely resolved on arrival. CT brain is normal. He has hypertension and hyperlipidaemia but no prior stroke. What is the most appropriate immediate management to reduce his risk of early stroke?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.