A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful first MTP joint. He has a history of gout and normal renal function. Which is the most app...

Question

A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful first MTP joint. He has a history of gout and normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate acute management?

Accepted Answer

High-dose NSAIDs (if no contraindication) or colchicine

Answer

Allopurinol initiation during the acute attack

Answer

Long-term corticosteroids only

Answer

Antibiotics for presumed septic arthritis without aspiration

Answer

No treatment is required

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Gout

A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful first MTP joint. He has a history of gout and normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate acute management?