A 28-year-old man presents with atraumatic, hot, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has a history of gout and moderate CKD (eGFR 45 mL/min/1.73 m^2). What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute flare?AIndomethacin high doseBColchicine dose adjusted for renal functionCAllopurinol initiation at high doseDLong-term prednisolone 10 mg dailyEProbenecidCheck my answer