A 56-year-old man with alcohol-related cirrhosis presents with new-onset tense ascites. He has no fever, abdominal tenderness, or encephalopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?AEmpiric broad-spectrum antibiotics without further testingBDiagnostic paracentesis to evaluate the ascitic fluidCStart lifelong beta-blocker therapyDSchedule elective transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)EDischarge with salt tablets to increase intravascular volumeCheck my answer