A 56-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is elevated. This is his first attack. Which management strategy is most appropriate?AStart allopurinol immediately and ignore gout flareBTreat the acute attack with NSAIDs or colchicine and consider urate-lowering therapy after repeated attacksCStart long-term prednisoneDNo treatment is needed as gout resolves spontaneouslyEAdvise long-term high-protein dietCheck my answer