A 68-year-old man presents with a 20-minute episode of left arm weakness and slurred speech that resolved completely by the time he arrives in the eme...

Question

A 68-year-old man presents with a 20-minute episode of left arm weakness and slurred speech that resolved completely by the time he arrives in the emergency department. CT head is normal. According to TIA management principles, which statement is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

He requires urgent assessment and early secondary prevention, often within 24-48 hours

Answer

He can be discharged with routine outpatient follow-up in a month

Answer

He has low stroke risk if symptoms resolved within 1 hour

Answer

Anticoagulation is not indicated for any TIA

Answer

No imaging is required once symptoms resolve

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Transient ischaemic attack

A 68-year-old man presents with a 20-minute episode of left arm weakness and slurred speech that resolved completely by the time he arrives in the emergency department. CT head is normal. According to TIA management principles, which statement is most appropriate?