A 40-year-old man presents with severe right first metatarsophalangeal joint pain, redness and swelling that began overnight. He has a history of hype...

Question

A 40-year-old man presents with severe right first metatarsophalangeal joint pain, redness and swelling that began overnight. He has a history of hyperuricaemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment for this acute gout attack in an otherwise healthy patient?

Accepted Answer

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (e.g. naproxen)

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Colchicine

Answer

Low-dose aspirin

Answer

Probenecid

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Acute gout management