A 70-year-old woman presents with acute onset of a painful, swollen left leg after a long-haul flight from Europe. Duplex ultrasound confirms a proxim...

Question

A 70-year-old woman presents with acute onset of a painful, swollen left leg after a long-haul flight from Europe. Duplex ultrasound confirms a proximal deep vein thrombosis. She has no active cancer, normal renal function and no contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy?

Accepted Answer

Start a direct oral anticoagulant (e.g., apixaban) at full treatment dose for at least 3 months.

Answer

Initiate low molecular weight heparin alone for 3 months.

Answer

Start warfarin with heparin bridging for at least 5 days, then discontinue warfarin at 2 weeks.

Answer

Prescribe low-dose acetylsalicylic acid alone for 6 months.

Answer

Insert an inferior vena cava filter without anticoagulation.

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Proximal deep vein thrombosis