Question

A 40-year-old woman presents to her family physician with low mood, anhedonia, insomnia and impaired concentration for 6 weeks. She has no psychotic symptoms or suicidality. Function is moderately impaired and she has no prior psychiatric history. According to CANMAT guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Begin a first-line SSRI and offer evidence-based psychotherapy such as CBT.

Answer

Prescribe benzodiazepines alone for symptomatic relief.

Answer

Recommend watchful waiting with no active treatment for at least 6 months.

Answer

Arrange immediate electroconvulsive therapy.

Answer

Start a tricyclic antidepressant as first-line pharmacotherapy.

Practice question