Practice question

Answer the question and get instant feedback.

EasyInfectious DiseasesCellulitisau-amcau-racgp

A 54-year-old man presents with an erythematous, warm, tender area on his lower leg with poorly defined margins and no abscess. He is systemically well. There is a small entry wound from tinea pedis but no purulence. According to the Therapeutic Guidelines summary table, what is the most appropriate first-line oral antibiotic in this situation?

Practice more on iatroX

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.